Instructions: Choose the single best answer for each question unless stated otherwise. Answers are at the bottom of the document.


Section A - Science and IS research (Ch. 2)

Q1. Which of the following is NOT a required property of the scientific method?
  • a) Replicability
  • b) Falsifiability
  • c) Consensus among all researchers
  • d) Independence from subjective judgment
Q2. What is the correct order from observation to testable science?
  • a) Phenomena Variables Constructs Hypotheses
  • b) Phenomena Concepts Constructs Variables Hypotheses
  • c) Concepts Phenomena Variables Propositions Hypotheses
  • d) Phenomena Hypotheses Constructs Variables Concepts
Q3. A hypothesis is best defined as:
  • a) A mental representation of an observed phenomenon
  • b) A connection between two concepts
  • c) A testable relationship between variables
  • d) A measurable property of a construct
Q4. The IS Design Science research cycle consists of which loops?
  • a) Theory loop and Practice loop
  • b) Environment loop and Knowledge base loop (with a central Design cycle)
  • c) Induction loop and Deduction loop
  • d) Data loop and Analysis loop
Q5. What distinguishes IS research as a “Design Science” from classical or social sciences?
  • a) It only uses quantitative methods
  • b) It combines science approaches (rigor, falsification) with engineering principles (prototyping, evaluation)
  • c) It rejects the concept of falsifiability
  • d) It focuses exclusively on building software artefacts

Section B - Research process (Ch. 3)

Q6. A research question phrased as “How does IT governance influence business value?” would most likely lead to:
  • a) Exploratory research
  • b) Explanatory research
  • c) Descriptive research only
  • d) Computational research
Q7. Deductive reasoning can be formally described as:
  • a) Given a cause and an effect induce a rule
  • b) Given a rule and an effect abduce a cause
  • c) Given a rule and a cause deduce the effect
  • d) Given an observation derive the simplest explanation
Q8. A researcher observes multiple cases and derives a general pattern. This is an example of:
  • a) Deduction
  • b) Abduction
  • c) Induction
  • d) Falsification
Q9. Abduction is associated with:
  • a) Testing existing theories on new data
  • b) Occam’s razor and educated guessing
  • c) Moving from general laws to specific predictions
  • d) Strict experimental control
Q10. Which reasoning mode is primarily concerned with building theoretical explanations?
  • a) Exploration
  • b) Rationalization
  • c) Validation
  • d) Operationalization
Q11. Which methodology strength is most associated with qualitative strategies?
  • a) Generalisability
  • b) Deductibility
  • c) Explorability
  • d) Repeatability
Q12. Which methodology strength is most associated with quantitative strategies?
  • a) Complexity
  • b) Explorability
  • c) Generalisability
  • d) Controllability
Q13. What distinguishes a Systematic Literature Review (SLR) from an ad hoc literature review?
  • a) SLR uses only digital databases
  • b) SLR is predefined, rigorous, documented, and repeatable
  • c) Ad hoc reviews are more thorough
  • d) SLR cannot be used to formulate research questions
Q14. In the conducting phase of an SLR, “backward search” means:
  • a) Searching for articles published before a certain year
  • b) Browsing references cited in the article of interest
  • c) Reversing the inclusion/exclusion criteria
  • d) Searching for retracted papers
Q15. “Forward search” in an SLR refers to:
  • a) Searching for future research directions
  • b) Browsing articles that cite the article of interest
  • c) Adding new search terms iteratively
  • d) Searching only the most recent year of publications

Section C - Theory (Ch. 4)

Q16. Which of the following is NOT a building block of a theory?
  • a) Constructs
  • b) Relationships
  • c) Data collection instruments
  • d) Justifications
Q17. A theory without stated boundaries is problematic because:
  • a) It becomes too simple
  • b) It is unfalsifiable
  • c) It cannot have constructs
  • d) It lacks any relationships
Q18. A Type III theory in IS (Prediction) is characterized by:
  • a) No causal claims and no predictions
  • b) Testable propositions but weak causal grounding
  • c) Both strong causal explanations and testable propositions
  • d) Prescriptions for constructing artefacts
Q19. Which theory type is most relevant to Design Science Research?
  • a) Type I - Analysis
  • b) Type III - Prediction
  • c) Type IV - Explanation and Prediction
  • d) Type V - Design and Action
Q20. A theory that says “what is, how, why, when, where, and what will be” corresponds to:
  • a) Type II - Explanation
  • b) Type III - Prediction
  • c) Type IV - Explanation and Prediction
  • d) Type V - Design and Action
Q21. Which of the following IS a theory?
  • a) A dataset showing correlation between IT spending and revenue
  • b) A list of 12 untested hypotheses about user adoption
  • c) A system of constructs with justified relationships, testable propositions, and stated boundary conditions
  • d) A detailed description of a single company’s IT implementation
Q22. The “Justifications” building block of a theory answers which question?
  • a) “What are the constructs?”
  • b) “How are they related?”
  • c) “Why would this relationship exist?”
  • d) “When does the theory apply?”

Section D - Qualitative research methods (Ch. 5a)

Q23. Reflexivity in interviewing refers to:
  • a) The interviewer reflecting on their own bias
  • b) The interviewee responding with what the interviewer wants to hear
  • c) Using multiple interview rounds
  • d) Recording the interview for later analysis
Q24. Which data collection technique is least affected by reflexivity?
  • a) Semi-structured interviews
  • b) Participant observation
  • c) Documentation analysis
  • d) Focus groups
Q25. In the coding process, “axial coding” refers to:
  • a) Uncovering and labelling concepts from raw data
  • b) Organizing concepts into causal relationships
  • c) Identifying central categories
  • d) Writing subjective reflections
Q26. The correct sequence of coding stages is:
  • a) Selective coding Axial coding Open coding
  • b) Open coding Selective coding Axial coding
  • c) Axial coding Open coding Selective coding
  • d) Open coding Axial coding Selective coding
Q27. “Transferability” in qualitative research is analogous to which quantitative concept?
  • a) Reliability
  • b) Internal validity
  • c) External validity
  • d) Construct validity
Q28. What distinguishes action research from a case study?
  • a) Action research uses only quantitative data
  • b) In action research, the researcher introduces changes/interventions and is the agent of change
  • c) Case studies always involve multiple organizations
  • d) Action research cannot contribute to scientific knowledge
Q29. Grounded theory is characterized by:
  • a) Starting with a strong theoretical framework and testing it
  • b) Inductively generating theory from systematically collected and analysed qualitative data
  • c) Using only structured interviews
  • d) Focusing exclusively on hypothesis testing
Q30. Which triangulation type involves using both interviews and document analysis?
  • a) Triangulation across methods
  • b) Triangulation across sources
  • c) Triangulation across researchers
  • d) Triangulation across theories
Q31. “Memoing” in qualitative research is:
  • a) A formal statistical technique
  • b) Subjective reflection by the researcher about observations and connections
  • c) Sending memos to interview participants
  • d) A type of content analysis
Q32. Discourse analysis focuses on:
  • a) What is said (content only)
  • b) How it is said (structure, framing, language use)
  • c) Statistical frequency of words
  • d) Only written communication

Section E - Quantitative research methods (Ch. 5b)

Q33. A confounder is a variable that:
  • a) Mediates the relationship between independent and dependent variables
  • b) Is related to both the independent and dependent variable and can create spurious relationships
  • c) Moderates the strength of a relationship
  • d) Is always included in the statistical model
Q34. “Company size” influences both “IT investment” and “company performance.” In this scenario, company size is a:
  • a) Mediator
  • b) Moderator
  • c) Confounder
  • d) Dependent variable
Q35. In full mediation, the direct relationship between the independent and dependent variable:
  • a) Doubles in strength
  • b) Drops to zero - everything goes through the mediator
  • c) Becomes negative
  • d) Remains unchanged
Q36. A moderator variable:
  • a) Sits between the independent and dependent variable
  • b) Changes the strength of the relationship between independent and dependent variables
  • c) Is always a confounder
  • d) Cannot be measured
Q37. Which level of measurement has a meaningful zero point and allows relative comparisons?
  • a) Nominal
  • b) Ordinal
  • c) Interval
  • d) Ratio
Q38. Temperature in Celsius is an example of which measurement level?
  • a) Nominal
  • b) Ordinal
  • c) Interval
  • d) Ratio
Q39. Measurement reliability is influenced by:
  • a) Systematic error
  • b) Random error
  • c) Both systematic and random error equally
  • d) Neither type of error
Q40. What is the relationship between measurement reliability and validity?
  • a) They are the same thing
  • b) Validity is necessary for reliability
  • c) Reliability is necessary but not sufficient for validity
  • d) They are completely independent
Q41. In non-probability sampling, “snowball sampling” means:
  • a) Selecting elements that are easy to reach
  • b) A small initial group recruits additional participants
  • c) Randomly selecting from predefined strata
  • d) Systematically skipping every nth element
Q42. You want to test whether there is a difference in IT alignment scores between three groups of companies (small, medium, large). Which test is most appropriate?
  • a) Independent samples t-test
  • b) Paired samples t-test
  • c) ANOVA
  • d) Pearson correlation
Q43. ANCOVA extends ANOVA by:
  • a) Adding more dependent variables
  • b) Controlling for the effect of covariates/confounders
  • c) Removing the need for random sampling
  • d) Allowing categorical independent variables only
Q44. A paired samples t-test is used when:
  • a) Comparing two independent groups at one time-point
  • b) Comparing one group at two time-points
  • c) Comparing more than two groups
  • d) Testing correlation between two variables
Q45. Mixed ANOVA is appropriate when:
  • a) You have one group measured at one time-point
  • b) You have two or more independent groups measured at more than two time-points
  • c) You want to test correlation only
  • d) You have purely categorical outcome variables
Q46. Exploratory factor analysis is used to:
  • a) Formally test a pre-specified factor structure
  • b) Explore which observed variables cluster under latent dimensions without strong prior theory
  • c) Run regression with latent variables
  • d) Confirm hypotheses from a previous study
Q47. In a reflective latent construct model:
  • a) The indicators cause changes in the latent construct
  • b) The latent construct causes changes in all the indicators
  • c) There is no relationship between indicators and the construct
  • d) The indicators are directly observed
Q48. Structural equation modelling (SEM) is best described as:
  • a) A type of exploratory factor analysis
  • b) Regression with latent variables, measuring causal relationships between latent constructs
  • c) A non-parametric test for ordinal data
  • d) A sampling technique for large populations
Q49. The difference between a survey and a questionnaire is:
  • a) There is no difference
  • b) A survey covers a variety of topics; a questionnaire focuses on one construct or related set of constructs
  • c) A questionnaire is always longer
  • d) A survey cannot include Likert scales
Q50. Stratified random sampling involves:
  • a) Selecting the most convenient participants
  • b) Dividing the population into mutually exclusive strata and then randomly sampling from each
  • c) Asking participants to recruit others
  • d) Selecting every nth element from a list

Section F - Mixed methods and design science (Ch. 5c)

Q51. In mixed methods research, “meta-inference” refers to:
  • a) The initial hypothesis before data collection
  • b) The overall conclusion drawn from integrating conclusions from all methods used
  • c) A statistical technique for combining p-values
  • d) The literature review phase
Q52. Which is NOT a strength of mixed methods?
  • a) Provides stronger evidence through convergence
  • b) Can answer a broader range of research questions
  • c) Is simpler and less resource-intensive than single-method research
  • d) Qualitative data adds meaning to quantitative results
Q53. Design Science in IS research is primarily about:
  • a) Only conducting surveys
  • b) Creating innovative artefacts that contribute new scientific evidence
  • c) Purely theoretical work with no practical output
  • d) Replicating natural science experiments

Section G - Research philosophy

Q54. The research paradigm pillar that asks “How is reality defined?” is called:
  • a) Epistemology
  • b) Ontology
  • c) Methodology
  • d) Theoretical perspective
Q55. Epistemology is concerned with:
  • a) How reality is defined
  • b) How we know something and what counts as knowledge
  • c) Which tools to use for data collection
  • d) The practical consequences of ideas
Q56. A positivist researcher would most likely:
  • a) Use case studies and grounded theory
  • b) Emphasize the researcher’s subjective experience
  • c) Use large samples, experiments, and surveys with a detached, value-free stance
  • d) Focus on deconstructing power structures
Q57. The interpretivist paradigm holds that:
  • a) Reality is objective and fixed
  • b) Reality is socially constructed through culture and language
  • c) Only quantitative data is valid
  • d) The researcher should be completely detached
Q58. Critical realism is described as bridging positivism and interpretivism because:
  • a) It rejects both approaches entirely
  • b) It holds that reality is objective but layered, with deeper hidden mechanisms causing surface phenomena
  • c) It uses only mixed methods
  • d) It focuses solely on postmodern critique
Q59. Which philosophical identity is nicknamed “The Architect”?
  • a) Positivism
  • b) Interpretivism
  • c) Critical Realism
  • d) Pragmatism
Q60. The key insight of the “research onion” model is that:
  • a) Only the outermost layer matters
  • b) Data collection and analysis are at the center, influenced by all surrounding layers (philosophy, strategy, methodology, time horizon)
  • c) Philosophy has no influence on methods
  • d) All research must use the same onion structure

Answer key

Section A - Science and IS research
  • Q1: c) - Consensus is not required; science requires replicability, independence, precision, and falsifiability
  • Q2: b) - Phenomena Concepts Constructs Variables Hypotheses
  • Q3: c) - A hypothesis is a testable relationship between variables
  • Q4: b) - Environment loop and Knowledge base loop with a central Design cycle
  • Q5: b) - IS Design Science combines science approaches with engineering principles
Section B - Research process
  • Q6: b) - “How” questions lead to explanatory research
  • Q7: c) - Deduction: given a rule and a cause deduce the effect
  • Q8: c) - Observing cases and deriving patterns is induction (specific general)
  • Q9: b) - Abduction is associated with Occam’s razor and educated guessing
  • Q10: b) - Rationalization is about building theoretical explanations
  • Q11: c) - Qualitative strategies are strong in explorability
  • Q12: c) - Quantitative strategies are strong in generalisability
  • Q13: b) - SLR is predefined, rigorous, documented, and repeatable
  • Q14: b) - Backward search = browsing references cited in the article of interest (finding older sources)
  • Q15: b) - Forward search = browsing articles that cite the article of interest (finding newer sources)
Section C - Theory
  • Q16: c) - Data collection instruments are not a building block of a theory; the four blocks are constructs, relationships, justifications, and boundaries
  • Q17: b) - Without boundaries, a theory is unfalsifiable
  • Q18: b) - Type III has testable propositions but weak causal grounding
  • Q19: d) - Type V (Design and Action) is about prescriptions for constructing artefacts
  • Q20: c) - Type IV (EP) covers what is, how, why, when, where, and what will be
  • Q21: c) - A theory requires constructs, justified relationships, testable propositions, and boundary conditions
  • Q22: c) - Justifications answer “Why would this relationship exist?”
Section D - Qualitative methods
  • Q23: b) - Reflexivity = the interviewee responds with what the interviewer wants to hear
  • Q24: c) - Documents were not created for the research, so they don’t suffer from reflexivity
  • Q25: b) - Axial coding organizes concepts into causal relationships
  • Q26: d) - Open coding Axial coding Selective coding
  • Q27: c) - Transferability is the qualitative analogue of external validity
  • Q28: b) - In action research, the researcher introduces changes and is the agent of change
  • Q29: b) - Grounded theory inductively generates theory from qualitative data
  • Q30: b) - Using different data sources (interviews + documents) is triangulation across sources
  • Q31: b) - Memoing is subjective reflection by the researcher
  • Q32: b) - Discourse analysis focuses on how something is said
Section E - Quantitative methods
  • Q33: b) - A confounder is related to both variables and can create spurious relationships
  • Q34: c) - Company size is a confounder influencing both IT investment and performance
  • Q35: b) - In full mediation, the direct relationship drops to zero
  • Q36: b) - A moderator changes the strength of the relationship
  • Q37: d) - Ratio level has a meaningful zero and allows relative comparisons
  • Q38: c) - Celsius is interval (0 °C does not mean absence of temperature)
  • Q39: b) - Reliability is influenced by random error
  • Q40: c) - Reliability is necessary but not sufficient for validity
  • Q41: b) - Snowball sampling = initial group recruits others
  • Q42: c) - ANOVA tests differences between more than two groups
  • Q43: b) - ANCOVA controls for covariates/confounders
  • Q44: b) - Paired samples t-test compares one group at two time-points
  • Q45: b) - Mixed ANOVA = multiple independent groups measured at multiple time-points
  • Q46: b) - EFA explores clustering of observed variables under latent dimensions
  • Q47: b) - In a reflective model, the latent construct causes changes in indicators
  • Q48: b) - SEM is regression with latent variables
  • Q49: b) - A survey covers many topics; a questionnaire focuses on one construct or related set
  • Q50: b) - Stratified random sampling divides into strata and randomly samples each
Section F - Mixed methods and design science
  • Q51: b) - Meta-inference is the overall integrated conclusion
  • Q52: c) - Mixed methods are actually MORE resource-intensive, not simpler
  • Q53: b) - Design Science creates innovative artefacts contributing to the body of knowledge
Section G - Research philosophy
  • Q54: b) - Ontology asks “How is reality defined?”
  • Q55: b) - Epistemology is about how we know and what counts as knowledge
  • Q56: c) - Positivists use large samples, experiments, surveys; detached and value-free
  • Q57: b) - Interpretivism holds that reality is socially constructed
  • Q58: b) - Critical realism: reality is objective but layered with hidden mechanisms
  • Q59: d) - Pragmatism is “The Architect”
  • Q60: b) - The research onion shows data collection at the center, influenced by all surrounding layers